There is actually quite a bit of scholarly study indicating the same-sex phrasing in that passage in Leviticus was added sometime between the original oral teachings and transcription. Apparently, they are able to determine that because of etymological and linguistic style differences between Old Testament eras.

And, recall… The New Testament statements on it came from Paul, a form pharisee. Christ actually had an opportunity to address it, apparently. Remember the Centurion who came to Jesus to ask Him to heal the "servant?" Well, the word in the original Greek used a word listners of the time would have understood as indicating a same-sex relationship, perhaps more like a same-sex concubine than slave or servant. Yet, Jesus only praised the man's strength of belief and told him the "servant" was healed.